Reproduction System and Embryology Quiz-02

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NEET is the most famous and important medical entrance examination held in our country. This exam is an objective type, an offline test which includes 4 sections namely– Physics, Chemistry, Botany, and Zoology. The maximum marks that can be scored are 720 marks and have 180 questions. About half of the paper consists of questions from Biology, as the NEET exam essentially focuses on capacitating students to go for seats in medical courses. One of the most significant and crucial sections in the NEET exam is of Biology. It comprises of theories, descriptions, discoveries, diagrams, definitions, explanations of differences, and relations. The majority of the topics covered in the NEET syllabus are from the NCERT syllabus of Class 11 & 12 and other related sources become part of the rest of the syllabus. Clear Exam curates a list of articles selected by professionals who recommend the highly vital topics for NEET exams. The table below takes you directly to the respective topic where the in-depth article and the MCQs are available for an easy and productive learning experience. Prior to solving NEET question papers or practicing mock tests, you must ensure to study the basic concepts in NEET and practice a few sample questions related to this exam. Students will be covered for all their studies as the topics are available from basics to even the most advanced. .

Q1.   Which of the following is the group of external genitalia in human female?
  •  Labium minora, labium majora, vagina
  •  Labium minora, labium majora, clitoris
  •  Labium minora, labium majora, oviduct
  •  Labium minora, labium majora, cervix
(b) The external genitals of female are collectively called vulva. These include the protective coverings of skin folds called labia majora and labia minora. Clitoris is another accessory external reproductive organ of female. Labia majora and labia minora protect the vaginal and urethral openings beneath, while clitoris provides felling of pleasure during sexual stimulation.

Q2.   Which of the following are secretions produced by the spermatozoa at the time of fertilization?
  •  Fertilizin and anti-fertilizin
  •  Anti-fertilizin and sperm lysin
  •  Fertilizin and sperm lysin
  •  Only sperm lysin
(b) At the time of fertilization, the sperm secretes sperm lysin and anti-fertilizin.

Q3.   Ejaculation is the …A… response. Erection is a …B… response. Here, A and B refers to
  •  A-parasympathetic, B-sympathetic
  •  A-parasympathetic, B-parasympathetic
  •  A-sympathetic, B-parasympathetic
  •  A-sympathetic, B-sympathetic


  •  Option A
  •  Option B
  •  Option C
  •  Option D

Q5.   Which cell organelle is absent in human sperm?
  •  ER
  •  Mitochondria
  •  Nucleus
  •  Centrioles
(a) ER is absent in human sperm.

Q6.   Which one of the following statements with regard to embryonic development in humans is correct?
  •  Cleavage divisions bring about considerable increase in the mass of protoplasm
  •  In the second cleavage division, one of the two blastomeres usually divides a little sooner than the second
  •  With more cleavage divisions, the resultant blastomeres become larger and larger
  •  Cleavage division results in a hollow ball of cells called morula
(b) During embryonic development of human, in the second cleavage division, one of the two blastomeres usually divides a little sooner then the second. Cleavage is series of mitotic cell divisions that increase the number of cells but does not change the size of the original mass.

Q7.   Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct
  •  It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
  •  It has far less cytoplasm as well as lessDNA than in an uncleaved zygote
  •  It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
  •  It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
(d) Cleavage divisions are mitotic division, in which the single celled zygote is connected into a multicellular morula. But during cleavage division, there is no growth of resultant daughter cell/blastomeres. So, the DNA content will increase, but there is no increase or insignificant increase in amount of protoplasm.

Q8.   Which of the following groups of cell in the male gonad, represent haploid cells?
  •  Spermatogonial cells
  •  Germinal epithelial cells
  •  Secondary spermatocytes
  •  Primary spermatocytes
(c) Secondary spermatocytes are haploid as these are formed after meiosis-I (reductional division).

Q9.   Test tube baby means a baby born when
  •  The ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
  •  It develops from a non-fertilized egg
  •  It is developed in a test tube
  •  It is developed through tissue culture method
(a) In certain cases, where normal fertilization is not possible, ovum from the female and the sperm from the male are fused by in vitro technique. The zygote, later on, is implanted in the uterus, where futher development takes place. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards first time developed ‘test tube baby technique’ in 1978.

Q10.   When released from ovary, human egg contains
  •  One Y-chromosome
  •  Two X-chromosomes
  •  One X-chromosome
  •  XY-chromosomes
(c) The female individual contains two X chromosomes. The eggs are produced by the meiosis, i.e., reduction division. So, the egg contains one X-chromosome, when released from ovary. After fertilization, the diploid phase is restrored.

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Reproduction System and Embryology Quiz-02
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